The Revelation 20:4
And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and [I saw] the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received [his] mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
Are the two relative clauses('that were beheaded for the witness ~~word of God', 'which had not worshipped ~ hands) representing only one type of people or two seperate types of people?
1. People who were beheaded and had not worshipped?
2. One type of people who were beheaded and another type of people who had not worshipped?
I'm not a native English speaker and studying English grammar. Pretty please with sugar on top~!!
I really appreciate, but one more queestion Jewels Vern. In short, you mean the clause led by a relative pronoun that and the clause led by which are mortifying 'them', and the 'them' means one group of people, right?
Then, is it ok to write [and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands;] ? (I mean without 'which')
Why did the writer use 'which' though there is already 'that' afer them?
Just to make it clear?
Please help me once again, thank you~!!