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... Why is it that, except for Australia and maybe parts of South Asia*, most descendants of people who came out of Africa are pale skinned (Caucasian or Asia), without a trace of black people until recent migrations? Some are darker-skinned than others but none are truly black. *Actually, the blackest person I have ever met was a Sri Lankan.
Also, were Neanderthals black or white or somewhere in between? Do we know?
If you can't read my answer the way I wrote it, there is no point in asking for other people's thoughts.
Sorry, I read your question EXACTLY as you wrote it. Perhaps not the way you meant it. Such questions do NOT necessarily or even often wind up as racial bigotry and many of the answers are scientifically supported. It seems odd to me that blackness disappeared (or never existed) in northern Europe and Asia over many thousands of years until migration and the slave trade started in the last three centuries. Is it a problem to ask why? Is it any more of a problem than asking why Neanderthals died out? Or how the Australian aborigines got there from Africa, or how the North American indigenous peoples came from Asia? It is all fascinating history and may tell us something useful, or enable us all to get on better.
No, it is not wrong to ask. But the answer eventually devolves to "Because they are not as good as us," and there is no way to avoid that, so there is no reason to start the conversation at all.
I can understand that you don't like my answer. But that does not mean that I did anything wrong. It only means that you did not like the answer.
I hear you, but now I don't understand your last comment. Let's switch to a different topic and see if anyone else responds to my post, like a qualified anthropologist, I would hope.
Nonsense. I'm looking for scientific explanations. How can this possibly have anything to do with racial bigotry? Are you saying that anyone who uses the word black is a bigot? FACT. We all came from Africa and therefore have black ancestors (albeit a very long time ago).