Hey everybody I was just wondering if, in a situation where you have a 50% chance of either of two outcomes occurring, ( lets say, A and B) repeated an infinite number of times, is there an upper limit on the number of times either of the two outcomes could occur consecutively? Is it a single individual number, an unspecified, finite number, or is it infinite?
-Thanks in advance,
Henry
A question of infinities?
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Answers (2)
well if your saying that on what the situation thing could happen the out come could happen consecutively thinking of the two different scenarios and depending on what they are either a negative thing could happen or a positive thing could happen we are just waiting for the result now thinking about two separate things if they were good but theres a chance that either senario could happen being its a or b so we hope that it could be either aor b both positive actions you would think it wouldn't have it happening this way so your back at the starting gate where either result positive or negative would happen your stuck waiting for the out come to happen either way
The coin toss experiment.. in theory you could toss a coin forever (literally) and have it always come down tails (or heads). This is a fact, there is no upper limit so long as someone or something keeps tossing the coin. Will it happen? Well the odds are far far more in favour of no but if you had an inifinite number of machines tossing that coin then one of them (or an infinite number of them) will be getting one heads after another.
You have to consider this idea; there are many kinds of infinity. the classic is if you have the numbers, 1.3.5.7.9.etc.. all odd numbers or 2.4.6.8.10. etc all even numbers, both are an infinity. Thus whenever someone says "an infinite number of typing mokeys will eventually type out the works of shakespeare" then they are correct BUT you can also assume that they won't be alone, an infinite number of monkeys will have acheived the same goal.
I appreciate your feedback; however, I'm not entirely certain whether you answered my question. Your response eliminated "a specific finite number" but if I'm not mistaken you didn't say anything that would redact either "a non-specified finite number" or infinite. If you could please clarify on that I would greatly appriciate it. Thanks.
is there an upper limit on the number of times either of the two outcomes could occur consecutively? No, there isn't.
Is it a single individual number? No. An unspecified, finite number? No. Is it infinite? Yes
Ok thanks for clearing that up.
The odds on the same outcome happening would multiply each time the experiment continued, the chances of the same "coin toss" happening ten times in a row is fractional compared to the likelihood that the same "toss" would occur 100 times in a row.
If the same "toss" were to occur an infinite number of times in a row, then the odds on this would be infinite also.
With each subsequent "toss" of the coin the odds on the same outcome each time would double.
If you were going to predict a single "toss" then the odds would be the same each and every time, but if you are trying for a consecutive sequence then the previous answer is wrong.
I don't quite understand what your saying. My question holds no regards for whether the outcome is good or bad. I would greatly appreciate it if you could restate your comment.